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Finc400 quiz 1-8
 

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art 1 of 1 – Week 1 Quiz

 

Question 1 of 25
4.0 Points

The firm’s price-earnings (P/E) ratio is influenced by its

 

 

[removed] A.capital structure.
 

[removed] B.earnings volatility.
 

[removed] C.sales, profit margins, and earnings.
 

[removed] D.all of these.
 

 

Question 2 of 25
4.0 Points

The primary disadvantage of accrual accounting is that

 

 

[removed] A.it does not match revenues and expenses in the period in which they are incurred.
 

[removed] B.it does not appropriately measure accounting profit.
 

[removed] C.it does not recognize accounts receivable.
 

[removed] D.it does not adequately show the actual cash flow position of the firm
 

Question 3 of 25
4.0 Points

Total assets of a firm are financed with liabilities and stockholders’ equity.

 

 

[removed] True

[removed] False

.
 
 

Question 4 of 25
4.0 Points

Gross profit is equal to

 

 

[removed] A.sales minus cost of goods sold.
 

[removed] B.sales minus (selling and administrative expenses).
 

[removed] C.sales minus (cost of goods sold and selling and administrative expenses).
 

[removed] D.sales minus (cost of goods sold and depreciation expense).
 

 

 
 

Question 5 of 25
4.0 Points

The higher the profit of a firm, the higher the value the firm is assured of receiving in the market.

 

 

[removed] A. True

[removed] B. False

 
 

uestion 6 of 25
4.0 Points

Ratios are used to compare different firms in the same industry.

 

 

[removed] A. True

[removed] B. False

Question 7 of 25
4.0 Points

The Sarbanes-Oxley Act was passed in an effort to

 

 

[removed] A.protect small business from large corporations dominating the market.
 

[removed] B.ensure that partnerships divide profits among partners in a fair manner.
 

[removed] C.guarantee outside auditors can control corporate accounting practices.
 

[removed] D.control corrupt corporate behavior.
 

 
 

uestion 8 of 25
4.0 Points

Which of the following is not subtracted out in arriving at operating income?

 

 

[removed] A.interest expense
 

[removed] B.cost of goods sold
 

[removed] C.depreciation
 

[removed] D.selling and administrative expense
 

 
 

Question 9 of 25
4.0 Points

Which of the following is not a primary source of capital to the firm?

 

 

[removed] A.assets
 

[removed] B.common stock
 

[removed] C.preferred stock
 

[removed] D.bonds
 

 
 

Question 10 of 25
4.0 Points

A firm has $1,500,000 in its common stock account and $1,000,000 in its paid-in capital account. The firm issued 100,000 shares of common stock. What was the original issue price if only one stock issue has ever been sold?

 

 

[removed] A.$35 per share
 

[removed] B.$25 per share
 

[removed] C.$15 per share
 

[removed] D.Not enough information to tell
 

 
 

Question 11 of 25
4.0 Points

Debt utilization ratios are used to evaluate the firm’s debt position with regard to its asset base and earning power.

 

 

[removed] A. True

[removed] B. False

 
 

uestion 12 of 25
4.0 Points

A firm with earnings per share of $3 and a price-earnings ratio of 20 will have a stock price of

 

 

[removed] A.$60.00
 

[removed] B.$15.00
 

[removed] C.$6.67
 

[removed] D.the market assigns a stock price independent of EPS and the P/E ratio.
 

 
 

Question 13 of 25
4.0 Points

The P/E ratio is strongly related to the past performance of the firm.

 

 

[removed] A. True

[removed] B. False

 
 

Question 14 of 25
4.0 Points

Money markets would include which of the following securities?

 

 

[removed] A.common stock and corporate bonds.
 

[removed] B.treasury bills and commercial paper.
 

[removed] C.certificates of deposit and preferred stock.
 

[removed] D.all of these.
 

 
 

uestion 15 of 25
4.0 Points

Agency theory assumes that corporate managers act to increase the wealth of corporate shareholders.

 

 

[removed] A. True

[removed] B. False

 
 

Question 16 of 25
4.0 Points

Preferred stock is excluded from stockholders equity because it does not have full voting rights.

 

 

[removed] A. True

[removed] B. False

 
 

Question 17 of 25
4.0 Points

Sales minus cost of goods sold is equal to earnings before taxes.

 

 

[removed] A. True

[removed] B. False
 
 
 

Question 18 of 25
4.0 Points

Asset utilization ratios

 

 

[removed] A.relate balance sheet assets to income statement sales.
 

[removed] B.measure how much cash is available for reinvestment into current assets.
 

[removed] C.are most important to stockholders.
 

[removed] D.measures the firm’s ability to generate a profit on sales.
 

 
 
 

Question 19 of 25
4.0 Points

The P/E ratio provides no indication of investors’ expectations about the future of a company.

 

 

[removed] A. True

[removed] B. False

Question 20 of 25
4.0 Points

Asset utilization ratios relate balance sheet assets to income statement sales.

 

 

[removed] A. True

[removed] B. False

 

Question 21 of 25
4.0 Points

 
 
 

Financial markets exist as a vast global network of individuals and financial institutions that may be lenders, borrowers, or owners of public companies worldwide.

 

 

[removed] A. True

[removed] B. False

 

Question 22 of 25
4.0 Points

 
 
 

Which of the following is an outflow of cash?

 

 

[removed] A.profitable operations
 

[removed] B.the sale of equipment
 

[removed] C.the sale of the company’s common stock
 

[removed] D.the payment of cash dividends
 

 

uestion 23 of 25
4.0 Points

The Bubba Corp. had earnings before taxes of $400,000 and sales of $2,000,000. If it is in the 40% tax bracket its after-tax profit margin is:

 

 

[removed] A.40%
 

[removed] B.12%
 

[removed] C.20%
 

[removed] D.25%
 

 
 

Question 24 of 25
4.0 Points

The income statement is the major device for measuring the profitability of a firm over a period of time.

 

 

[removed] A. True

[removed] B. False

 
 

Question 25 of 25
4.0 Points

Which of the following is an inflow of cash?

 

 

[removed] A.funds spent in normal business operations
 

[removed] B.the purchase of a new factory
 

[removed] C.the sale of the firm’s bonds
 

[removed] D.the retirement of the firm’s bonds

 
 
Week 2
Question 1 of 25               4.0 Points
A lower price for the firm’s product will reduce the firm’s breakeven point.
A. True
 
B. False
 
Question 2 of 25               4.0 Points
(point) Profit is generally adequate to finance significant growth.
 
A. True
 
B. False
 
 
Question 3 of 25               4.0 Points
If a firm has a break-even point of 40,000 units and the contribution margin on the firm’s single product is $4.00 per unit and fixed costs are $60,000, what will the firm’s operating profit be at sales of 40,000 units?
 
A.$100,000
 
B.$30,000
 
C.$15,000
 
D.$145,000
 
Question 4 of 25               4.0 Points
(point) The break-even point can be calculated as
 
A.variable costs divided by contribution margin.
 
B.total costs divided by contribution margin.
 
C.variable cost times contribution margin.
 
D.fixed cost divided by contribution margin.
 
 
Question 5 of 25               4.0 Points
The degree of combined leverage is the sum of the degree of operating leverage and the degree of financial leverage.
 
A. True
 
B. False
 
 
Question 6 of 25               4.0 Points
If fixed costs rise while other variables stay constant
 
A.the breakeven point rises.
 
B.degree of operating leverage increases.
 
C.total profit declines.
 
D.all of these
Question 7 of 25               4.0 Points
Operating leverage emphasizes the impact of using fixed assets in the business.
A. True
 
B. False
 
Question 8 of 25               4.0 Points
(point) In financial statements, the number of units shown in cost of goods sold as compared to the number of the units actually produced
 
A.is higher.
 
B.is lower.
 
C.is the same.
 
D.can be either higher or lower.
Question 9 of 25               4.0 Points
The contribution margin is equal to price per unit minus total costs per unit.
A. True
 
B. False
 
Question 10 of 25             4.0 Points
(point) Which of the following is most likely to increase the final number for notes payable in the pro forma balance sheet?
 
A.decrease in inventory.
 
B.increase in retained earnings.
 
C.decrease in accounts payable.
 
D.decrease in accounts receivable.

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